
A magnet, freely suspended in a vibration magnetometer makes $40$ oscillations per minute at a place $A$ and $20$ oscillations per minute at $B$. If ${B_H}$ at $B$ is $36 \times {10^{ - 6}}T$, then its value at $A$is :
A. $36 \times {10^{ - 6}}T$
B. $72 \times {10^{ - 6}}T$
C. $144 \times {10^{ - 6}}T$
D. $288 \times {10^{ - 6}}T$
Answer
221.1k+ views
Hint: In order to solve this problem, we are going to use the expression of time period of a bar magnet according to which the time period of magnet is directly proportional to the moment of inertia of magnet and inversely proportional to magnetic moment and magnetic field.
Formula used:
The time period of bar magnet is given by,
$T = 2\pi \sqrt {\dfrac{I}{{MB}}} $
Here, $T$ is time period of oscillation of bar magnet, $I$ is moment of inertia of bar magnet, $M$ is magnetic moment and $B$ is magnetic field intensity of bar magnet.
Complete step by step solution:
In the question, we have given the number of oscillations made by the magnet is $40$ and the magnetic field intensity is ${B_H} = 36 \times {10^{ - 6}}T$. In order for the model to be true, the net force exerted on the object at the pendulum's end must be commensurate to the displacement.
As we know, the motion of a simple pendulum may be described by the basic harmonic motion and simple harmonic motion can also be used to describe molecular vibration. The time period of bar magnet is given by,
$T = 2\pi \sqrt {\dfrac{I}{{MB}}} $
Similarly, the period of oscillation is given by,
$T = 2\pi \sqrt {\dfrac{I}{{M{B_H}}}} $
As we know that the frequency of an oscillation is directly proportional to the square root of the magnetic field, so we have $T \propto \dfrac{1}{{\sqrt {{B_H}} }}$.
Then, we have $\dfrac{{T_1^2}}{{T_2^2}} = \dfrac{{{B_{{H_A}}}}}{{{B_{{H_B}}}}}$
Now, substitute the given values in the above formula, then we obtain:
$\dfrac{{{{(\dfrac{{40}}{{60}})}^2}}}{{{{(\dfrac{{20}}{{60}})}^2}}} = \dfrac{{{B_{{H_A}}}}}{{36 \times {{10}^{ - 6}}}} \\$
$\Rightarrow \dfrac{{(\dfrac{{40}}{{60}})}}{{(\dfrac{{20}}{{60}})}} = \sqrt {\dfrac{{{B_{{H_B}}}}}{{36 \times {{10}^{ - 6}}}}} \\$
$\therefore {B_{{H_A}}} = 144 \times {10^{ - 6}}T \\ $
Therefore, the value of $A$ is $144 \times {10^{ - 6}}T$.
Thus, the correct option is C.
Note: The magnetic field strength or magnetic field intensity is the ratio of the magnetomotive force needed to create flux density per unit length of a certain material. The oscillation period and the magnet's moment of inertia are directly related, and the magnetic field of the planet is produced deep beneath the earth's core. The Earth's core generates an electric current because the movement of liquid iron generates magnetic fields.
Formula used:
The time period of bar magnet is given by,
$T = 2\pi \sqrt {\dfrac{I}{{MB}}} $
Here, $T$ is time period of oscillation of bar magnet, $I$ is moment of inertia of bar magnet, $M$ is magnetic moment and $B$ is magnetic field intensity of bar magnet.
Complete step by step solution:
In the question, we have given the number of oscillations made by the magnet is $40$ and the magnetic field intensity is ${B_H} = 36 \times {10^{ - 6}}T$. In order for the model to be true, the net force exerted on the object at the pendulum's end must be commensurate to the displacement.
As we know, the motion of a simple pendulum may be described by the basic harmonic motion and simple harmonic motion can also be used to describe molecular vibration. The time period of bar magnet is given by,
$T = 2\pi \sqrt {\dfrac{I}{{MB}}} $
Similarly, the period of oscillation is given by,
$T = 2\pi \sqrt {\dfrac{I}{{M{B_H}}}} $
As we know that the frequency of an oscillation is directly proportional to the square root of the magnetic field, so we have $T \propto \dfrac{1}{{\sqrt {{B_H}} }}$.
Then, we have $\dfrac{{T_1^2}}{{T_2^2}} = \dfrac{{{B_{{H_A}}}}}{{{B_{{H_B}}}}}$
Now, substitute the given values in the above formula, then we obtain:
$\dfrac{{{{(\dfrac{{40}}{{60}})}^2}}}{{{{(\dfrac{{20}}{{60}})}^2}}} = \dfrac{{{B_{{H_A}}}}}{{36 \times {{10}^{ - 6}}}} \\$
$\Rightarrow \dfrac{{(\dfrac{{40}}{{60}})}}{{(\dfrac{{20}}{{60}})}} = \sqrt {\dfrac{{{B_{{H_B}}}}}{{36 \times {{10}^{ - 6}}}}} \\$
$\therefore {B_{{H_A}}} = 144 \times {10^{ - 6}}T \\ $
Therefore, the value of $A$ is $144 \times {10^{ - 6}}T$.
Thus, the correct option is C.
Note: The magnetic field strength or magnetic field intensity is the ratio of the magnetomotive force needed to create flux density per unit length of a certain material. The oscillation period and the magnet's moment of inertia are directly related, and the magnetic field of the planet is produced deep beneath the earth's core. The Earth's core generates an electric current because the movement of liquid iron generates magnetic fields.
Recently Updated Pages
Young’s Double Slit Experiment Derivation Explained

A square frame of side 10 cm and a long straight wire class 12 physics JEE_Main

The work done in slowly moving an electron of charge class 12 physics JEE_Main

Two identical charged spheres suspended from a common class 12 physics JEE_Main

According to Bohrs theory the timeaveraged magnetic class 12 physics JEE_Main

ill in the blanks Pure tungsten has A Low resistivity class 12 physics JEE_Main

Trending doubts
Understanding Uniform Acceleration in Physics

Understanding Atomic Structure for Beginners

Understanding Entropy Changes in Different Processes

Common Ion Effect: Concept, Applications, and Problem-Solving

Understanding the Wheatstone Bridge: Principles, Formula, and Applications

Formula for number of images formed by two plane mirrors class 12 physics JEE_Main

Other Pages
What Are Elastic Collisions in One Dimension?

Electric field due to uniformly charged sphere class 12 physics JEE_Main

Understanding Charging and Discharging of Capacitors

Free Radical Substitution and Its Stepwise Mechanism

MOSFET: Definition, Working Principle, Types & Applications

Understanding Geostationary and Geosynchronous Satellites

