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CBSE Class 12 Political Science Term 1 Question Paper 2022 with Solutions

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Last updated date: 14th Apr 2024
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MVSAT 2024

CBSE Class 12 Political Science Term 1 Question Paper 2022|Download Free PDF with Solution

Class 12 Political Science is an extensive subject of the Humanities stream. This subject is chosen by higher secondary students. Its syllabus aims at developing the concepts related to bipolarity, centres of power, south Asian political scenario, globalisation and security in the contemporary world.


To prepare for this subject, focus on solving the CBSE Class 12 Political Science Question Paper 2022 and refer to the solutions. Find out how the experts have framed the answers perfectly. Follow the pattern and score more in the board exam.

Access CBSE Class 12 Political Science Question Paper with Solution-Term 1

Political Science (Theory)

General Instructions:

  • This question paper contains 60 questions out of which 50 questions are to be attempted. All questions carry equal marks.

  • This question paper consists of three sections: Sections A, B, and C.

  • Section A has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions from Q.Nos. 1 to 24.

  • Section B has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions from Q.Nos. 25 to 48.

  • Section C has 12 questions. Attempt any 10 questions from Q.Nos. 49 to 60.

  • Only the first 20 questions in Sections A and B and the first 10 questions in Section C attempted by a candidate will be evaluated. 

  • There is only one correct option for every Multiple Choice Question (MCQ). marks will not be awarded for answering more than one option.

  • There is no negative marking.

   

Section — A

Attempt any 20 questions.


  1. Which one of the following is known as the high point of the Cold War?

  1. The formation of NATO

  2. The Cuban Missile Crisis

  3. The dropping of two atomic bombs by the US

  4. The formation of two power blocs

Ans. The Cuban Missile Crisis is known as the high point of the Cold War. The Cold War standoff involving the Soviet Union and the United States during the Cuban Missile Crisis in October 1962 was the closest the two superpowers ever came to a nuclear exchange.

Hence, the correct option is (B).


  1. During the Cold War period, the smaller states joined the two alliances to get _____ and _____.

  1. promise of protection against local rivals

  2. membership of the UN Security Council

  3. economic aid for self-defence

Choose the correct option:

  1. i and ii

  2. ii and iii 

  3. i and iii

  4. i, ii and iii

Ans. During the Cold War period, the smaller states joined the two alliances to get membership of the UN security council and economic aid for self defence. The minor nations in the alliances made use of the superpowers' connection for their own ends. They were promised safety, weapons, and financial assistance.

Hence, the correct option is (B).


  1. The first Non-Aligned Summit was held at

  1. Belgrade

  2. New Delhi

  3. Havana

  4. Bandung

Ans. The first Non-Aligned Summit was held in Belgrade. Three influential individuals—Josip Broz Tito, the president of Yugoslavia, Gamal Abdel Nasser, the president of Egypt, and Jawaharlal Nehru, the first prime minister of India—organised the first official summit of the Non-Aligned Movement in 1961 in Belgrade.

Hence, the correct option is (A).


  1. Choose the statement which was not a cause of the Cold War. 

  1. It was a matter of power rivalry between the two superpowers.

  2. The two superpowers were spreading their ideologies.

  3. The two alliances were struggling to get dominance in the United Nations

  4. Both the alliances were trying to be more powerful than each other.                                                    

Ans. The two alliances were struggling to get dominance in the United Nations was not the cause of the cold war. The cold war was a matter of power rivalry between the two superpowers. Both superpowers wanted to spread their ideologies. Both alliances were trying to be more powerful than each other.

Hence, the correct option is (c).


  1. Which one of the following commissions were formed for the planned development of India, just after independence?

  1. Election Commission

  2. Planning Commission 

  3. Shah Commission

  4. NITI Aayog

Ans. The Planning Commission was formed for the planned development of India, just after independence. The Planning Commission oversees the development of the Five Year Plans and Annual Plans as well as consultations with the State Governments and Central Ministries. The Commission also serves as the highest-level advising body.

Hence, the correct option is (B).


  1. Who among the following appoints the Vice Chairperson of NITI Aayog?

  1. President of India

  2. Prime Minister of India

  3. Vice President of India

  4. Lok Sabha Speaker                 

Ans. Prime Minister of India appoints the Vice Chairperson of NITI Aayog. The Chief Ministers of all the states, the Chief Ministers of Delhi and Puducherry, the Lieutenant Governors of all the UTs, and a vice-chairman chosen by the Prime Minister make up the NITI Aayog council.

Hence, the correct option is (B).


  1. In which year was the NITI Aayog constituted?

  1. 2014

  2. 2015

  3. 2016

  4. 2017                                                               

Ans. NITI Aayog was constituted in the year 2015. With the expertise and abilities to move quickly, support research and innovation, offer the government a strategic policy vision, and handle unforeseen difficulties, NITI Aayog is becoming a cutting-edge resource centre.

Hence, the correct option is (B).


  1. Which of the following statements about NITI Aayog are true? 

    1. NITI Aayog acts as a 'think tank' of the Union Government. 

    2. NITI Aayog acts against terrorism.

    3. NITI Aayog acts in the spirit of cooperative federalism

    4. NITI Aayog decides more roles for bigger states and smaller roles for smaller     states.

Choose the correct option: 

  1. i, ii and iv

  2. iii and iv

  3. i, iii and iv

  4. i and iii 

Ans. The following statements about NITI Aayog are true: NITI Aayog acts as a 'think tank' of the Union Government. NITI Aayog acts in the spirit of cooperative federalism. NITI Aayog decides more roles for bigger states and smaller roles for smaller states. NITI Aayog doesn’t act against terrorism.

Hence, the correct option is (c).


  1. What was the main focus of the Second Five Year Plan? 

  1. Agriculture

  2. Industrialization

  3. Education

  4. Transportation       

Ans. Industrialisation was the main focus of the Second Five Year Plan. The primary goals of the Second Plan are to grow real national income by 25% over the five-year period 1956–1957–1960–1961, significantly enhance job possibilities, industrialise quickly, and lessen economic inequality.

Hence, the correct option is (B).


  1. The statements given below are related to Shock Therapy. Choose the option that represents only the true statements :

        (i) The value of the Ruble, the Russian Currency, declined due to shock therapy.

(ii) Shock therapy strengthened Communism. 

(iii) Shock therapy reduced the prices of goods.

(iv) Shock therapy destroyed the old system of social welfare.

Choose the correct option:

  1. i and ii

  2. i and iii

  3. i, ii and iii

  4. i and iv

Ans. The value of the Ruble, the Russian Currency, declined due to shock therapy and Shock therapy destroyed the old system of social welfare are true statements related to Shock Therapy. A set of economic liberalisation measures known as "shock treatment" include the liberalisation of all prices, privatisation, trade liberalisation, and stabilisation through stringent monetary and fiscal rules. It was adopted in post-Communist countries to make the change from a command economy to a market one.

Hence, the correct option is (B).


  1. Arrange the following in chronological order:

(i) End of the Second World War

(ii) Disintegration of the USSR

(iii) Fall of the Berlin Wall

(iv) Indo-Russian Strategic Agreement

Choose the correct option:

  1. i, ii, iii, iv

  2. i, iii, ii, iv

  3. i, iv, ii, iii 

  4. i, iv, iii, ii

Ans. The suitable chronological order is the End of the Second World War, the Indo-Russian Strategic Agreement, the Fall of the Berlin Wall, and the Disintegration of the USSR. The end of the second world war was chronologically followed by the Indo- Russian Strategic Agreement from the events of historical importance. The fall of the Berlin Wall and the Disintegration of the USSR followed respectively. 

Hence, the correct option is (D).


  1. Identify the group of countries that had been part of the Soviet Union before its disintegration :

  1. Tajikistan, Azerbaijan, Armenia 

  2. Armenia, West Germany, Azerbaijan

  3. Poland, East Germany, Norway

  4. Norway, Hungary, Romania

Ans. Tajikistan, Azerbaijan, and Armenia were the countries that had been part of the Soviet Union before its disintegration. 15 sovereign nations—Armenia, Azerbaijan, Belarus, Estonia, Georgia, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Latvia, Lithuania, Moldova, Russia, Tajikistan, Turkmenistan, Ukraine, and Uzbekistan—have supplanted the previous superpower.

Hence, the correct option is (A).


  1. Which one of the following statements was not a feature of the Soviet system?

  1. A minimum standard of living was ensured to all citizens

  2. The Soviet Government subsidised the basic necessities.

  3. There was no unemployment.

  4. People had the right to property.

Ans. The ‘People had the right to property’ statement was not a feature of the Soviet system. Features of the Soviet System are: A minimum standard of living was ensured to all citizens; The Soviet Government subsidised the basic necessities and there was no unemployment.

Hence, the correct option is (D).


  1. Choose the statement that is not true about the 'Socialist Revolution' in 1917 in Russia:

  1. It was inspired by the ideals of Socialism

  2. It favoured to design a society based on the principles of equality

  3. It aimed at establishing two-party system

  4. It favoured a state-controlled economy.

Ans. The statement that is not true about the 'Socialist Revolution' in 1917 in Russia is ‘It aimed at establishing a two-party system’. Socialist Revolution was inspired by the ideals of socialism and favoured a society based on the principles of equality as well as a state-controlled economy.

Hence, the correct option is (C).


  1. Choose the statements which are not true about India's Nuclear Programme :

    1. India's Nuclear Programme has always been peace-oriented.

    2. India's Nuclear Programme is in favour of CTBT.

    3. India is committed to be a member of Nuclear Suppliers Group

    4. India's Nuclear Programme is to help the smaller countries of Asia

Choose the correct option:

  1. i and ii

  2. i and iv

  3. ii, iii and iv

  4. i, ii and iii

Ans. The statements which are not true about India's Nuclear Programme are: India's Nuclear Programme has always been peace-oriented and India's Nuclear Programme is to help the smaller countries of Asia. Homi Bhabha and Jawaharlal Nehru developed India's three-stage nuclear power programme in the 1950s to guarantee the nation's long-term energy independence through the utilisation of uranium and thorium reserves found in the monazite sands of coastal regions in South India.

Hence, the correct option is (B).


  1. Which Princely State of India was the first to announce to remain as an Independent State?

    1. Mysore

    2. Ajmer

    3. Gwalior

    4. Travancore

Ans. Travancore was the first Princely State of India to announce to remain as an Independent State. Princely kingdoms had the choice to join the newly formed dominions of India or Pakistan or remain an independent sovereign state under the Indian Independence Act of 1947. 

Hence, the correct option is (D).


  1. Why did India not join either of the two camps i.e., Western alliance or Eastern alliance during the Cold War era?

  1. India was afraid of both the camps

  2. India was working for a third camp

  3. India wanted to keep away from both the alliances

  4. Both the US and the Soviet Union were against India

Ans. India did not join either of the two camps i.e., the Western alliance or Eastern alliance during the Cold War era because India wanted to keep away from both alliances. For the sake of peace and stability, India actively participated in mediating between the two antagonistic alliances.

Hence, the correct option is (C).


  1. Who among the following created the 'Indian National Army?

  1. Bhagat Singh

  2. Subhash Chandra Bose

  3. Chandra Shekhar Azad

  4. Rajguru

Ans. Subhash Chandra Bose created the 'Indian National Army’. Imperial Japan and the Indian Nationalists joined forces to form the Indian National Army, also known as the Azad Hind Fauj, in 1942. Bose announced the creation of the Arzi Hukumat-e-Azad Hind, also known as the Provisional Government of Free India, in October 1943. (also known as Azad Hind or Free India). The INA was acknowledged as the Azad Hind army.

Hence, the correct option is (B).


  1. With which country does India have a treaty that allows the citizens of the two countries to travel to and work in the other country without visas and passports?

  1. Bangladesh

  2. Sri Lanka

  3. Nepal

  4. Israel

Ans. Nepal and India have a treaty that allows the citizens of the two countries to travel to and work in the other country without visas and passports. As a result, citizens of India and Nepal can freely cross the border without a passport or a visa, live and work in either country, own property in both, and engage in commerce and business in both.

Hence, the correct option is (C).


  1. Identify the leader who was not a founder member of NAM (Non-Aligned Movement):

  1. Jawaharlal Nehru

  2. Sukarn

  3. Gamal Abdel Nasser

  4. Nikita Khrushchev

Ans. Nikita Khrushchev was not a founder member of NAM (Non-Aligned Movement)

Jawaharlal Nehru of India, Kwame Nkrumah of Ghana, Nasser of Egypt, Sukarno of Indonesia, and Tito of Yugoslavia were the founders of the Non-Aligned Movement (NAM). There are 120 countries in the NAM, 17 governments that are observers, and 10 observer organisations.

Hence, the correct option is (A).


  1. Which one of the following is not a principal organ of the United Nations?

  1. Security Council

  2. World Bank

  3. International Court of Justice

  4. General Assembly


Ans. The World Bank is not a principal organ of the United Nations. There are six primary organs of the United Nations (UN). Five of them are situated at UN Headquarters in New York: the General Assembly, Security Council, Economic and Social Council, Trusteeship Council, and Secretariat. The Hague in the Netherlands is home to the sixth, the International Court of Justice.

Hence, the correct option is (B).


  1. Which one of the following statements is a function of UNICEF?

  1. It works for human development.

  2. It works for agriculture and rural development

  3. It works for the promotion of children's health

  4. It works for environmental protection

Ans. UNICEF works for the promotion of children's health. Through 157 national programmes, UNICEF operates in 191 countries and territories in the following sectors:

Development of adolescents, Child protection, early childhood development, education, gender equality, health, and communication for development and HIV/AIDS.

Hence, the correct option is (C).


  1. Which of the following statements are the sims of the International Labour Organisation (ILO)?

    1. It aims to promote efficient conditions of social justice.

    2. It works for workers according to international labour standards.

    3. It mainly works for the protection of human rights

    4. It gives incentive for women and male workers to engage in productive work.

Choose the correct option:

  1. i, ii and iii

  2. ii, iii and iv

  3. i and iv

  4. i, ii and iv

Ans. The following statements are the sims of the International Labour Organisation (ILO) are: It aims to promote efficient conditions of social justice; It works for workers according to international labour standards and It gives incentives for women and male workers to engage in productive work.

Hence, the correct option is (D).


  1. Which group among the following options represents the three Princely States that resisted their merger with India?

  1. Hyderabad, Bhopal, Jammu and Kashmir

  2. Junagarh, Gwalior, MysoreSocial constraints

  3. Junagarh, Hyderabad, Travancore

  4. Gwalior, Travancore, Bhopal

Ans. Junagarh, Hyderabad, and Travancore are the three Princely States that resisted their merger with India. Finally, Travancore and Cochin were merged in the middle of 1949 to form the princely union of Travancore-Cochin. The only princely states which signed neither Covenants of Merger nor Merger Agreements were Kashmir, Mysore, and Hyderabad.

Hence, the correct option is (C).


section - B

Attempt any 20 questions.


  1. Why was India's policy of Non-alignment criticised?

    1. India's policy was unprincipled in the name of pursuing national interests.

    2. India signed a Treaty of Friendship with the USSR in 1971 for 20 years.

    3. India was against signing any friendship treaty with the US.

    4. India remained biassed on many international issues.

Choose the correct option:

  1. i and iii

  2. ii and iii

  3. i, ii and iv

  4. i, ii and iv

Ans. India's policy of Non-alignment was criticised because: India's policy was unprincipled in the name of pursuing national interests, India signed a Treaty of Friendship with the USSR in 1971 for 20 years and India remained biassed on many international issues. India should stay out of the conflict between these two blocs, according to Nehru, who proposed the principle of non-alignment. As a result, it is against the policy to side with any of the two military powers.


  1. NATO is also called the 'Western Alliance' because most of its members belonged to:

  1. Western Asia

  2. Western Europe

  3. The western part of America

  4. Western Africa

Ans. NATO is also called 'Western Alliance' because most of its members belonged to Western Europe. Twelve countries formed the North Atlantic Treaty Organisation. These nations were all a part of western Europe. As a result, this organisation was also known as Western Alliance.


  1. Which one of the following is the correct full form of CTBT?

  1. Correct Test Ban Theory

  2. Complete Test Ban Treaty

  3. Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty

  4. Comprehensive Total Ban Theory

Ans. The correct full form of CTBT is the Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty. All nuclear explosions, whether carried out for defensive or non-combat purposes, are prohibited by the Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty (CTBT). A preamble, 17 articles, two annexes, and a Protocol with two annexes are all included.


  1. Which one of the following groups of countries is known as the Axis Powers?

  1. Germany, Italy, France 

  2. Germany, Poland, Italy

  3. Poland, France, Japan 

  4. Germany, Japan, Italy

Ans. Germany, Japan, Italy groups of countries are known as the Axis Powers. The military alliance known as the Axis powers, often known as the Rome-Berlin Axis, started World War II and battled the Allies.


  1. Assertion (A): The Soviet Union and Communism collapsed in 1991.

Reason (R): The internal weaknesses of the Soviet political and economic institutions failed to meet the aspirations of the Soviet people.

       Select the correct answer:

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is the correct  explanation of Assertion (A).

  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).

  3. Assertion (A) is incorrect, but Reason (R) is correct.

  4. Assertion (A) is correct, but Reason (R) is incorrect.

Ans. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A). The Soviet Union and Communism collapsed in 1991 because internal weaknesses of the Soviet political and economic institutions failed to meet the aspirations of the Soviet people.


  1. Assertion (A): In the 1990s, the economy of Russia was ruined completely.

    Reason (R): More than 90% of the industries were sold to private companies at

    throwaway prices. 

Choose the correct option:

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).

  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).

  3. Assertion (A) is correct, but Reason (R) is incorrect.

  4. Assertion (A) is incorrect, but Renson (R) is correct.

Ans. Assertion (A) is incorrect, but Renson (R) is correct. More than 90% of the industries were sold to private companies at throwaway prices but it didn’t collapse the Russian economy.


  1. The main objective of the United Nations is to :

  1. control the big powers to exploit small countries

  2. check population growth

  3. prevent international conflicts

  4. manufacture medicines

Ans. The main objective of the United Nations is to prevent international conflicts. The preservation of world peace and security, the advancement of global human welfare, and international cooperation toward these goals are the main goals of the United Nations.


  1. The United Nations was established:

  1. after the First World War

  2. after the disintegration of the USSR

  3. before the Second World War

  4. after the Second World War

Ans. The United Nations was established after the Second World War. 51 nations came together to form the United States, an international body dedicated to preserving world peace and security, fostering goodwill among nations, and advancing social progress, higher living standards, and human rights.


  1. Which of the following statements are true about the steps to be taken to make the UN more relevant as recommended by heads of all the member states who met in September 2005 to celebrate the 60 anniversary of the UN ?

    1. Creation of a Peacebuilding Commission.

    2. Creation of Democracy Fund.

    3. Making no war tones.

    4. Condemnation of terrorism in all its forms.

Choose the correct option:

  1. i and ii

  2. i, ii and iii

  3. i, ii and iv 

  4. i, iii and iv

Ans. The following statements are true about the steps to be taken to make the UN more relevant as recommended by heads of all the member states who met in September 2005 to celebrate the 60 anniversary of the UN: Creation of a Peace building Commission, Creation of Democracy Fund and Condemnation of terrorism in all its forms.


  1. Assertion (A): The membership of the UN Security Council was expanded from 11 to 15 in 1965.

Reason (R): Number of permanent members of the Security Council was changed

Choose the correct option:

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A)

  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason R) are correct, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A)

  3. Assertion (A) is incorrect, but Reason (R) is correct.

  4. Assertion (A) is correct, but Reason (R) is incorrect.

Ans. Assertion (A) is correct, but Reason (R) is incorrect. The membership of the UN Security Council was expanded from 11 to 15 in 1965 but this didn’t change the number of permanent members of the security council. 


  1. Which one of the following statements does not justify India's claim to be a permanent member of the UN Security Council ? 

  1. India is the world's largest democracy

  2. India is the second most populous country.

  3. India has won two battles against Pakistan.

  4. India makes regular contributions to the United Nations.

Ans. India has won two battles against Pakistan does not justify India's claim to be a permanent member of the UN Security Council. India has led the long-running attempts to restructure the Security Council, arguing that it rightfully deserves a seat as a permanent member because the Council's current makeup does not adequately reflect the geopolitical realities of the twenty-first century.


  1. Which one of the following was not a reason for the partition of British India in 1947 ?

  1. The Two-Nation theory

  2. The political aim of the Muslim League

  3. Integration of Princely States with India

  4. British policy to divide India

Ans. Integration of Princely States with India was not a reason for the partition of British India in 1947. The Partition was a crude religiously-based split that resulted in the emergence of Muslim majorities in West and East Pakistan and Hindu majorities in India. The subsequent instability and violence resulted in the deaths of between 500,000 and 2 million individuals.


  1. Which of the following are the consequences of India's Partition in 1947?

  1. Communal violence

  2. Lakhs of people had to migrate from one place to another

  3. Parliamentary system of governance

  4. Reorganisation of States

Choose the correct option:

  1. i and iii

  2. ii and iv

  3. i and ii

  4. iii and iv

Ans. Communal violence and Lakhs of people had to migrate from one place to another are the consequences of India's Partition in 1947. Between 10 and 20 million people were uprooted along religious lines by the division, causing unimaginable tragedy in the newly established dominions. Between 200,000 and 1 million people are thought to have perished during migration.


  1. The rulers of the most of the Princely States had agreed to become a part of the Union of India _____

  1. on 15th of August, 1947

  2. on 26th of January, 1950

  3. before 15th of August, 1947

  4. after 26th of January, 1950

Ans. The rulers of most of the Princely States had agreed to become a part of the Union of India on 26th of January, 1950. With India's independence in 1947, the age of the princely states was essentially over; by 1950, practically all of them had joined either India or Pakistan.


  1. Which one of the following from the North-East had become a state before 1972 ?

  1. Meghalaya

  2. Manipur

  3. Tripura

  4. Nagaland

Ans. Nagaland from the North-East had become a state before 1972. In 1947, Assam became the first province to become a state alongside the rest of the nation. Following this were Arunachal Pradesh in 1975, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Manipur in 1972, Nagaland in 1963, and Mizoram in 1987.


  1. Assertion (A): Movement of the people of Hyderabad State against the Nizam's rule had gathered force and momentum.

Reason (R): Peasantry and women joined hands against the oppressive rule of the Nizam.

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).

  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).

  3. Assertion (A) is incorrect, but Reason (R) is correct.

  4. Assertion (A) is correct, but Reason (R) is incorrect.

Ans. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A). Movement of the people of Hyderabad State against the Nizam's rule had gathered force and momentum because Peasantry and women joined hands against the oppressive rule of the Nizam.


  1. The Planning Commission of India was abolished because :

    1. it had become very old.

    2. it was becoming ineffective and irrelevant to face the challenges of development.

    3. it was based on an old model of socialism

    4. many states had asked for abolition of the Planning Commission

Ans. The Planning Commission of India was abolished because it was becoming ineffective and irrelevant to face the challenges of development. The Union Government replaced the Planning Commission with Niti Aayog following the significant declaration Prime Minister Narendra Modi made on Independence Day, which went into effect on January 1st, 2015.


  1. Assertion (A: India was opposed to the indefinite extension of NPT in 1995 and refused to sign NPT and CTBT both.

Reason (R): India considers these treaties to be discriminatory and is against the monopoly of five nuclear weapon powers.

  Choose the correct option:

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).

  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).

  3. Assertion (A) is incorrect, but Reason (R) is correct.

  4. Assertion (A) is correct, but Reason (R) is incorrect.

Ans. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A). India was opposed to the indefinite extension of NPT in 1995 and refused to sign NPT and CTBT both because India considers these treaties to be discriminatory and is against the monopoly of five nuclear weapon powers.


  1. Assertion (A): Though the cultural ties between India and Israel go back from time immemorial, yet the political relations developed after the establishment

  of the NDA Government in India.

Reason (R): Leaders of both the countries have been visiting one another's  country since 1990.

Choose the correct option:

  1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion.

  2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).

  3. Assertion (A) is incorrect, but Reason (R) is correct.

  4. Assertion (A) is correct, but Reason (R) is incorrect.

Ans. Assertion (A) is incorrect, but Reason (R) is correct. Leaders of both the countries, India and Israel have been visiting one another's country since 1990.


  1. Which one of the following statements about India-China relations is not correct?

    1. The slogan 'Hindi-Chini Bhai Bhai' was popular for a brief while only.

    2. China took over Tibet in 1950

    3. India opposed China's entry into the UN Security Council

    4. China attacked India in 1962

Ans. India opposed China's entry into the UN Security Council is not true about India- China relations. While regular border disputes and economic nationalism in both countries are a key topic of tension, the two countries have endeavoured to cooperate economically.


  1. Which one of the following statements about India's relations with Pakistan is incorrect?

    1. India and Pakistan signed the Indus Water Treaty which has survived in spite of various military conflicts.

    2. India and Pakistan worked together to restore people back to their families.

    3. India and Pakistan have signed a treaty of friendship to work against terrorism.

    4. India and Pakistan signed the Tashkent Agreement in 1966.

Ans. India and Pakistan have signed a treaty of friendship to work against terrorism is incorrect statement about India’s relation with Pakistan. In August 1971, India and the Soviet Union signed the Indo-Soviet Treaty of Peace, Friendship, and Collaboration, which outlined mutual strategic cooperation. No treaty of friendship was signed between India and Pakistan.


  1. Choose the correct statements about India's relations with Nepal:

  1. India and Nepal enjoy a very special relationship.

  2. India does not interfere in the internal affairs of Nepal

  3. India has always helped Nepal during natural disasters.

  4. Citizens cannot travel to other countries without visas.

Choose the correct option:

  1. i, ii and iv

  2. i, iii and iv

  3. i, ii and iii

  4. ii, iii and iv

Ans. India and Nepal enjoy a very special relationship, India does not interfere in the internal affairs of Nepal and India has always helped Nepal during natural disasters are the correct statements about India's relations with Nepal. An open border and strong people-to-people linkages of kinship and culture define the special friendship and collaboration between India and Nepal.


  1. Identify the country which has all the four features:

  1. It is a part of India's 'Look East Policy

  2. It came into existence with India's help.

  3. Its border touches the border of India

  4. It is a secular and democratic country.

Choose the correct option:

  1. Myanmar

  2. Nepal

  3. Bhutan

  4. Bangladesh

Ans. Bangladesh has all the mentioned four features: It is a part of India's 'Look East Policy; It came into existence with India's help; Its border touches the border of India and It is a secular and democratic country.


  1. Which one of the following is not a part of India's Foreign Policy?

    1. Policy of Non-alignment

    2. Respect for SAARC

    3. Respect for unipolar world

    4. Respect for peaceful co-existence

Ans. Respect for the unipolar world is not a part of India's Foreign Policy. India's foreign policy has traditionally viewed neighbourhoods as a series of expanding concentric circles centred on a central axis of shared historical and cultural experiences.

Section - C

Attempt any 10 questions.


  1. Study the logo given below and carefully answer the question that follows:

Logo for question reference.


Name the organisation to which this 'logo' belongs

  1. United Nations Organisation

  2. World Health Organisation

  3. UN Security Council

  4. International Labour Organisation

Ans. This 'logo' belongs to the United Nations Organisation. The United Nations was established after the Second World War. 51 nations came together to form the United States, an international body dedicated to preserving world peace and security, fostering goodwill among nations, and advancing social progress, higher living standards, and human rights.


Note: This following question is for Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of Q. No. 49:

The leaves of which tree are used to represent world peace?

  1. Olive

  2. Mulberry

  3. Sheesham

  4. Peepal

Ans. The leaves of Olive tree are used to represent world peace. Since at least the fifth century BC in Greece, the olive branch has been used as a symbol of peace in Western culture. Considering that olive trees grow slowly and are not typically grown during times of war, an olive branch is a symbol of peace.


  1. Study the picture given below carefully and answer the question that follows: 


Image for Image Identification in question.


The picture is related to which incident?

  1. Quit India Movement - 1942

  2. First Independence Day of India - 15 August, 1947

  3. First Republic Day of India - 25 January, 1950

  4. An election rally in 1952.

Ans. The picture is related to First Republic Day of India - 25 January, 1950. The Indian Constitution became operative on January 26, 1950. The Indian Constituent Assembly adopted the Constitution on November 26, 1949, and it went into force on January 26, 1950. This marked the end of the nation's transition to a democratic government system and its establishment as an independent republic.


Note: This following question is for Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of Q. No. 50:

Who was the first Deputy Prime Minister of free India ?

  1. Morarji Desai

  2. Sardar Patel

  3. Rajagopalachari

  4. Jagjivan Ram

Ans. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel was the first Deputy Prime Minister of free India. When India gained independence from the British Raj on August 15, 1947, Vallabhbhai Patel of the Indian National Congress party was sworn in as the first prime minister. He is also known as the Iron Man of India.


  1. Study the given postal stamps carefully and answer the question that follows: 


Postal Stamps for reference in the question


The given two postal stamps depict the thinking of which Prime Minister of India ?

  1. Lal Bahadur Shastri

  2. Charan Singh

  3. Jawaharlal Nehru

  4. Morarji Desai

Ans. The given two postal stamps depict the thinking of Former Prime Minister of India, Charan Singh. Between 28 July 1979 to 14 January 1980, Chaudhary Charan Singh  was India's 5th Prime Minister. He is commonly referred to as the "champion of India's peasants" by historians and the general public.


Note: This following question is for Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of Q. No. 51:

Which one of the following resulted in the emergence of a new country?

  1. Indo-Pak War

  2. Liberation of Goa

  3. Indo-China War

  4. Karl conflict.

Ans. The Indo-Pak War of 1971, resulted in the emergence of a new country which is Bangladesh. During the Bangladesh Liberation War in East Pakistan, India and Pakistan engaged in combat in the Indo-Pakistani War of 1971.


Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow (Q.No. 52 - 56): 

"The collapse of communism was followed in most of these countries by a painful process of transition from an authoritarian socialist system to a democratic capitalist system. The model of transition in Russia, Central Asia and cast Europe that was influenced by the World Bank and the IMF came to be known as "hock therapy. Shock therapy varied in intensity and speed amongst the Second World countries, but its direction and features were quite similar."


  1. Which of the following incidents has been quoted as the collapse of communism?

  1. Gorbacher's failure to get the desired results through his reforms

  2. Disintegration of the Soviet Union

  3. The Soviet Union had become stagnant in administration

  4. People were not satisfied with the Soviet System and the government lost popular backing.

Ans. Disintegration of the Soviet Union has been quoted as the collapse of communism. The process of internal disintegration within the Soviet Union (USSR) that led to the end of the nation's and its federal government's existence as a sovereign state, resulting in its constituent republics regaining full sovereignty on December 26, 1991, is known as the dissolution of the Soviet Union.


  1. Which one of the following countries was popular for its democratic capitalist system?

  1. United States of America

  2. Russia

  3. Cuba

  4. East Germany

Ans. The United States of America was popular for its democratic capitalist system. Capitalism was seen as a way of generating the riches necessary to uphold political freedom, while a democratically elected government ensured that political institutions were accountable and that the basic human rights of the workforce were upheld.


  1. Which group of two countries belonged to the Second World countries?

  1. India and Pakistan

  2. Germany and Italy

  3. Russia and Ukraine

  4. China and Japan

Ans. Russia and Ukraine belonged to the Second World countries. Bulgaria, Czechoslovakia, Hungary, Mongolia, North Korea, Poland, Romania, the Soviet Union, and the German Democratic Republic are a few instances of countries that fit the Cold War notion of the Second World.


  1. Which one of the following did not come from Shock therapy ?

  1. The rate of inflation to high

  2. The value of Ruble', the Russian currency declined

  3. The collective farm system got strengthened and food security was enured

  4. The old system of social welfare was systematically destroyed

Ans. The value of Ruble, the Russian currency declined did not come from Shock therapy. With the demise of communism, the majority of the former communist countries underwent an uncomfortable process of transition from an authoritarian socialist system to a democratic capitalist society.


A transformation in Russia, Central Asia, and East Europe that caught the attention of the World Bank and the IMF entered the picture as part of the "shock therapy" in post-communist regimes.


  1. Choose the option that is a feature of communism

  1. Multi-party system

  2. State controlled economy

  3. Special Economic Zones (SEZ)

  4. Privatisation of industries and agriculture.

Ans. State controlled economy is a feature of communism. Public ownership and social management over at least the main means of production (such as mines, mills, and factories) and the natural resources of a society are the goals of communism, a political and economic theory.


Read the in passage carefully and answer the questions that follow (No. 57-60):

On 14-15 August, 1947, not one but two nation-states came into existence - India and Pakistan. This was a result of partition, the division of British India into India and Pakistan ... This partition was the outcome of 'two-nation theory' advanced by the Muslim League. The Congress opposed this theory and the demand for Pakistan. But several political developments led to the decision for the creation of Pakistan.


  1. Which political leader demanded the partition of British India?

  1. Jawaharlal Nehru

  2. Sardar Patel

  3. M.A.Jinnah

  4. Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan

Ans. M.A.Jinnah demanded the partition of British India. Britain created the Cabinet Mission Plan because India's two major parties were unable to come to an agreement. With this mission, Britain attempted to fulfil Jinnah's demand for a Pakistan through "groupings" while also maintaining the undivided India that they and the Congress wished for.


  1. Choose the statement that correctly explains the 'two-nation theory’

  1. India consisted of two groups of people, Hindus and Muslims, hence two nations are required

  2. Two separate nations should be formed to accommodate the leaders of Hindus and Muslims

  3. One nation for Congress and other for Muslim League was demanded. 

  4. Hindus should have a separate nation but Muslim could choose anyone out of the two.

Ans. India consisted of two groups of people, Hindus and Muslims, hence two nations are required is the statement that correctly explains the 'two-nation theory’. Following gaining independence from the British Empire, the Indian subcontinent was strongly affected by the two-nation theory, a religious nationalist concept.


  1. Which two states were bifurcated on the basis of religious majority?

  1. Gujarat and Punjab

  2. Gujarat and Rajasthan

  3. Punjab and Bengal

  4. Bengal and Gujarat

Ans. Punjab and Bengal were bifurcated on the basis of religious majority. Due to district-level non-Muslim or Muslim majorities, the two provinces of Bengal and Punjab were divided during the partition.


  1. What among the following was not divided between India and Pakistan?

  1. Typewriters, books and musical instruments

  2. Liabilities

  3. Monuments

  4. Assets

Ans. Monuments were not divided between India and Pakistan. While its permanent collections were split 60:40 in accordance with the division of colonial Punjab's area, its archaeological stores were split 50:50 with India. As a result, West Punjab in Pakistan retained 60% of the museum's collection of paintings, sculptures, textiles, and decorative arts, while East Punjab in India received 40%.


Importance of CBSE Class 12 Political Science Term 1 Question Paper 2022

As mentioned earlier, this subject is all about the political scenario of India and South Asia. It holds immense importance in the academic curriculum of students who have chosen humanities. To score more in this subject, students must follow the syllabus better.


Once all the chapters have been studied perfectly, students can proceed to solve the CBSE Class 12 Political Science 2022 Question Paper. They can judge their preparation level and find the chapters that need more attention.


Developing a conceptual foundation becomes easier when the students have an assessment tool. The previous year’s question paper is the ideal tool to assess preparation and find out the sections that need more practice.


By solving such question papers, students will also become aware of the question pattern and exam format for this subject. The education board always maintains a format to help students focus on the sections and marking scheme.


By understanding the marking scheme, students will get highly benefitted. They can distribute their study sessions accordingly and can complete the syllabus accordingly. The question paper will also guide the students to understand the questions and the ideal answering format to follow.


Hence, download this question paper and give a mock exam at home. Get a good hold of the fundamental principles of the chapters and assess your answering skills in this subject.


Benefits of CBSE Class 12 Political Science Question Paper 2022 with Solutions

The prime benefits of solving the Class 12 Political Science 2022 question paper are:

  • Manage your exam time: The time allotted for solving the question paper can be managed accordingly when you are accustomed to giving mock exams based on the previous year’s question paper.

  • Refine your preparation session: Find the chapters that need more focus by solving the question paper at home. This way, you can revise the chapters well and strengthen your preparation.

  • Resolve doubts based on board questions: Resolve doubts based on the exam format, marking scheme, and answering format by referring to this exam paper and solution. It will help you design a strategy to attempt all the questions accordingly.


Download Political Science Question Paper Class 12 PDF 2022

Get the free PDF version of the Class 12 Political Science 2022 Question Paper with a solution and complete your preparation for this subject. Find your preparation level by assessing your answers. Learn how the experts answer Political Science questions and become better at scoring in the board exams.

FAQs on CBSE Class 12 Political Science Term 1 Question Paper 2022 with Solutions

1. What are the sections of Class 12 Political Science?

There are two sections in this syllabus. The first section is about contemporary world politics. The second section is about politics in India since independence. Each section has 40 marks allotted for the final exam.

2. How can I prepare the Class 12 Political Science curriculum?

The best approach is to finish one chapter at a time and complete the corresponding exercises. While doing so, make revision notes, or you can rely on the notes made by Vedantu experts. Once the entire syllabus is done, solve board exam papers and check your answering skills.

3. Why should I download the Class 12 Political Science 2022 Question Paper with a solution?

You can download this question paper and its solution for free. Give a mock test and refer to the solution for assessment at your convenience.