Question

Sathya bought a Violin for Rs. 18000 and she sold at a loss of 40%. What is her Selling Price?

Answer 1

Hint: We will first write down the information which is provided to us in the question which is Cost price and the discount. Now, we will apply this loss percentage in the formula of loss to find the loss. We will subtract the loss from the CP to get the SP.

Complete step by step answer:
We see that Sathya bought the Violin for Rs. 18000.
Since, CP means the cost price.
Therefore, the C.P. for the violin is = Rs. 18000.
We are also given that Sathya faced a loss of 40% while selling the violin.
Now, we will use the formula: Loss% = $\dfrac{{Loss}}{{C.P.}} \times 100$.
Now, bringing the Loss % from LHS to RHS and Loss from RHS to LHS, we will get:
$ \Rightarrow Loss = \dfrac{{Loss\% }}{{100}} \times C.P.$
Now, eradicating 0’s from RHS in numerator and denominator, we will then have with us the following expression:-
$ \Rightarrow Loss = Rs.(40 \times 180)$
Now, simplifying it to get: Loss = Rs. $7200$.
Now, since she faced a loss.
So, we have the formula of selling price (S.P.) given by:
S.P. = C.P. – Loss
Putting in the values of Loss we just found and the Cost price which is given to us in the question only, we will then get:-
\[ \Rightarrow S.P. = Rs.\left( {18000-7200} \right)\]
Simplifying the RHS, we will then get:-
\[ \Rightarrow S.P. = Rs.10800\]

\[\therefore \] The selling price for her violin is Rs. 10,800.

Note:
The students must note that they need to keep in mind all the formulas of S.P, Loss price by its percentage.
The students must also note that she incurred a loss which means she paid more than the price she sold the violin for. Therefore, S.P. < C.P. If she would have incurred a profit, it would have implied that she sold the violin for a higher price than she bought the violin for and S.P. > C.P.
The students must not forget to put the units after the amount which is rupees here in this question because writing just a number does not make any sense.