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How do you convert \[3\dfrac{1}{2}\]ft. to inches?

Answer
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547.5k+ views
Hint: In this question we have to convert given feet to inches. It means we have to find the equivalent value of inches for the given feet value. For doing these we will make use of fact which is given by \[1foot = 12inches\], here we have given feet so we will divide both sides with 12 so that we will get \[inch = \dfrac{1}{{12}}feet\].

Complete step-by-step answer:
 The given question is to convert the given feet into inches,
We use the fact that 12 inches is a foot, we can say that \[1foot = 12inches\], and since \[1foot = 12inches\] the given value of feet is multiplied by 12 to get the value of inches.
So now given feet is \[3\dfrac{1}{2}\],
This can be rewritten as 3.5,
We know that \[1foot = 12inches\],
We now multiply both sides with 3.5, we get,
\[ \Rightarrow \]\[3.5 \times 1feet = 3.5 \times 12inches\],
Now we will solve \[3.5 \times 12inches\], since the decimal is up to one digit from back , therefore it is divided by 10 and the decimal is removed, so we can rewrite 3.5 as \[\dfrac{{35}}{{10}}\].
Now the equation becomes,
\[ \Rightarrow \]\[3.5feet = \dfrac{{35}}{{10}} \times 12inches\],
Now simplifying we get,
\[ \Rightarrow \]\[3.5feet = \dfrac{{35 \times 12}}{{10}}inches\],
We will further simplifying we get,
\[ \Rightarrow \]\[3.5feet = \dfrac{{420}}{{10}}inches\],
Now dividing on the right hand side we get,
\[ \Rightarrow 3.5feet = 42inches\],
So, 3.5 ft is equal to 42 inches.

\[\therefore \]The given 3.5 ft. when converted to inches will be equal to 42 inches.

Note:
The foot is a type of imperial unit with a length equal to exactly 12 inches.
An inch is a unit of length or distance in a number of systems of measurement. One inch is defined as \[\dfrac{1}{{12}}\] of a foot and is therefore \[\dfrac{1}{{36}}\] of a yard.