State, which of the following are finite or infinite sets:
{Fractions between 1 and 2}
Answer
618.9k+ views
Hint: We know that finite means that any quantity or number that has a limit to find, for supposing the number of zeros in ten thousand rupees consists of 4, which means it can be countable, so it is called finite. Coming to the infinite, we cannot be countable and it will not get terminated, suppose the count of the numbers like 1,2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, like so on. There will be no termination for this. Such things or numbers are called infinite.
Complete step-by-step answer:
The set will be the group of things that are related to a particular section. Suppose if we want to find the prime numbers between 4 and 15, then the set can be written as {5, 7, 11 and 13}. These brackets with a count are called the set.
To find whether the fractions between 1 and 2 are finite or infinite sets.
As we know, the fraction consists of a numerator and the denominator. Let some of the fractions between 1 and 2 will be \[\dfrac{3}{2}\], \[\dfrac{4}{3}\], \[\dfrac{5}{4}\], \[\dfrac{6}{5}\], and many more. If we go on like this, we will get many numbers of fractions between 1 and 2. So there could be no termination for those fractions.
Therefore, we can say that there are an infinite set of fractions between 1 and 2.
Note: Here, in this solution, we have to know the meaning of the finite, infinite and set, because they are the main terms in the question, without knowing there particular definition we cannot move forward with the answer. So while answering, be sure the question is understood by everyone.
Complete step-by-step answer:
The set will be the group of things that are related to a particular section. Suppose if we want to find the prime numbers between 4 and 15, then the set can be written as {5, 7, 11 and 13}. These brackets with a count are called the set.
To find whether the fractions between 1 and 2 are finite or infinite sets.
As we know, the fraction consists of a numerator and the denominator. Let some of the fractions between 1 and 2 will be \[\dfrac{3}{2}\], \[\dfrac{4}{3}\], \[\dfrac{5}{4}\], \[\dfrac{6}{5}\], and many more. If we go on like this, we will get many numbers of fractions between 1 and 2. So there could be no termination for those fractions.
Therefore, we can say that there are an infinite set of fractions between 1 and 2.
Note: Here, in this solution, we have to know the meaning of the finite, infinite and set, because they are the main terms in the question, without knowing there particular definition we cannot move forward with the answer. So while answering, be sure the question is understood by everyone.
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