
Let $ f:\left( { - \dfrac{\pi }{2},\dfrac{\pi }{2}} \right) \to R $ be given by $ f(x) = {(\log (\sec x + \tan x))^3} $ . Then
A. $ f(x) $ is an odd function.
B. $ f(x) $ is one to one function.
C. $ f(x) $ is an onto function.
D. $ f(x) $ is an even function.
Answer
513.3k+ views
Hint: To solve the above question, first we will check if the function is odd or even function i.e. $ f( - x) = - f(x) $ or not. Then we will check if the function is one-one or not followed by checking onto or not. We might get multiple answers to the question here.
Complete step-by-step answer:
We have, $ f(x) = {(\log (\sec x + \tan x))^3} $
To check $ f(x) $ is even or odd function-
Differentiating the above function we get,
$ f( - x) = {\{ \log (\sec ( - x) + \tan ( - x))\} ^3} $
We know that, $ \tan ( - x) = - \tan x $ .
Putting this value in the above equation we get,
$ f( - x) = {\{ \log (\sec x - \tan x)\} ^3} $
Multiplying and dividing $ \sec x + \tan x $ with the trigonometric function of right hand side,
$ f( - x) = {\left\{ {\log \dfrac{{(\sec x - \tan x)(\sec x + \tan x)}}{{(\sec x + \tan x)}}} \right\}^3} $
As we know, $ (a + b)(a - b) = {a^2} - {b^2} $ , hence
$ f( - x) = {\left\{ {\log \dfrac{{({{\sec }^2}x - {{\tan }^2}x)}}{{(\sec x + \tan x)}}} \right\}^3} $
Again we know that, $ {\sec ^2}x - {\tan ^2}x = 1 $
$ f( - x) = {\left\{ {\log \dfrac{1}{{(\sec x + \tan x)}}} \right\}^3} $
As we know, $ \log {a^{ - 1}} = - \log a $ ,
$ f( - x) = {\left\{ { - \log (\sec x + \tan x)} \right\}^3} $
Again we know that, $ ( - {a^3}) = - ({a^3}) $
$ f( - x) = - {\left\{ {\log (\sec x + \tan x)} \right\}^3} $
$ f( - x) = - f(x) $
Thus, $ f(x) $ is an odd function.
To check if $ f(x) $ is one-one function or not-
Let $ g(x) = \sec x + \tan x $ $ \forall x \in \left( { - \dfrac{\pi }{2},\dfrac{\pi }{2}} \right) $
Differentiating it we get,
$ g'(x) = \sec x(\sec x + \tan x) $
Both the terms of the right hand side are positive at a given interval.
i.e. $ g'(x) > 0\forall x \in \left( { - \dfrac{\pi }{2},\dfrac{\pi }{2}} \right) $
Hence, $ g(x) $ is a one-one function.
Thus $ {\{ \log \left( {g(x)} \right)\} ^3} $ is a one-one function.
Thus $ f(x) $ is a one-one function.
To check if $ f(x) $ is onto function or not-
For $ f(x) $ to be onto we have to prove,
$ \left( {g(x)} \right) \in (0,\infty )\forall x \in \left( { - \dfrac{\pi }{2},\dfrac{\pi }{2}} \right) $
We know that,
$ g(x) = \sec x + \tan x = \dfrac{{1 + \sin x}}{{\cos x}} = \dfrac{{1 - ( - \sin x)}}{{\cos x}} $
Expanding it we get,
$ g(x) = \dfrac{{1 - (\cos \dfrac{\pi }{2} + x)}}{{\sin (\dfrac{\pi }{2} + x)}} $
Converting the above equation into $ \dfrac{{1 - \cos 2A}}{{\sin 2A}} $ form we get,
$ g(x) = \dfrac{{1 - (\cos 2(\dfrac{\pi }{4} + \dfrac{x}{2})}}{{\sin 2(\dfrac{\pi }{4} + \dfrac{x}{2})}} $
Putting the formula $ \dfrac{{1 - \cos 2A}}{{\sin 2A}} = \tan A $ we get,
$ g(x) = \tan (\dfrac{\pi }{4} + \dfrac{x}{2}) $
Hence, $ - \dfrac{\pi }{2} < x < \dfrac{\pi }{2} $
Dividing 2 we get,
$ - \dfrac{\pi }{4} < \dfrac{x}{2} < \dfrac{\pi }{4} $
Adding $ \dfrac{\pi }{4} $ we get,
$ \therefore $ $ o < \dfrac{x}{2} + \dfrac{\pi }{4} < \dfrac{\pi }{2} $
Taking tan,
$ \tan o < \tan \left( {\dfrac{x}{2} + \dfrac{\pi }{4}} \right) < \tan \dfrac{\pi }{2} $
Putting trigonometric values we get,
$ o < \tan \left( {\dfrac{x}{2} + \dfrac{\pi }{4}} \right) < \infty $
$ \therefore $ $ \left( {g(x)} \right) \in (0,\infty )\forall x \in \left( { - \dfrac{\pi }{2},\dfrac{\pi }{2}} \right) $
Hence, $ g(x) $ is onto function.
Thus $ {\{ \log \left( {g(x)} \right)\} ^3} $ is onto function.
Thus $ f(x) $ is onto function.
So, the correct answer is “Option A”, “Option B” and “Option C”.
Note: A function is called one to one if no two elements in the domain of that function correspond to the same element in the range of that function which means each x in the domain has exactly one image in the range. This is also called injective function.
The mapping of f is said to be onto if every element of the Y is the f-image of at least one element of x. It is also called a surjective function. A function f from a set X to set Y is surjective, if for every element y in the codomain Y of f, there is at least one element x in the domain X of f such that f(x)=y.
If a function is both one to one and onto, then it is called a bijective function.
Even functions and odd functions are functions which satisfy particular symmetry relations, with respect to taking additive inverse. If for a function $ f( - x) = - f(x) $ , then it is odd, if $ f( - x) = f(x) $ , then the function is even.
You might think it's done after proving it is an odd function, but you have to check each possibility or options one by one.
Complete step-by-step answer:
We have, $ f(x) = {(\log (\sec x + \tan x))^3} $
To check $ f(x) $ is even or odd function-
Differentiating the above function we get,
$ f( - x) = {\{ \log (\sec ( - x) + \tan ( - x))\} ^3} $
We know that, $ \tan ( - x) = - \tan x $ .
Putting this value in the above equation we get,
$ f( - x) = {\{ \log (\sec x - \tan x)\} ^3} $
Multiplying and dividing $ \sec x + \tan x $ with the trigonometric function of right hand side,
$ f( - x) = {\left\{ {\log \dfrac{{(\sec x - \tan x)(\sec x + \tan x)}}{{(\sec x + \tan x)}}} \right\}^3} $
As we know, $ (a + b)(a - b) = {a^2} - {b^2} $ , hence
$ f( - x) = {\left\{ {\log \dfrac{{({{\sec }^2}x - {{\tan }^2}x)}}{{(\sec x + \tan x)}}} \right\}^3} $
Again we know that, $ {\sec ^2}x - {\tan ^2}x = 1 $
$ f( - x) = {\left\{ {\log \dfrac{1}{{(\sec x + \tan x)}}} \right\}^3} $
As we know, $ \log {a^{ - 1}} = - \log a $ ,
$ f( - x) = {\left\{ { - \log (\sec x + \tan x)} \right\}^3} $
Again we know that, $ ( - {a^3}) = - ({a^3}) $
$ f( - x) = - {\left\{ {\log (\sec x + \tan x)} \right\}^3} $
$ f( - x) = - f(x) $
Thus, $ f(x) $ is an odd function.
To check if $ f(x) $ is one-one function or not-
Let $ g(x) = \sec x + \tan x $ $ \forall x \in \left( { - \dfrac{\pi }{2},\dfrac{\pi }{2}} \right) $
Differentiating it we get,
$ g'(x) = \sec x(\sec x + \tan x) $
Both the terms of the right hand side are positive at a given interval.
i.e. $ g'(x) > 0\forall x \in \left( { - \dfrac{\pi }{2},\dfrac{\pi }{2}} \right) $
Hence, $ g(x) $ is a one-one function.
Thus $ {\{ \log \left( {g(x)} \right)\} ^3} $ is a one-one function.
Thus $ f(x) $ is a one-one function.
To check if $ f(x) $ is onto function or not-
For $ f(x) $ to be onto we have to prove,
$ \left( {g(x)} \right) \in (0,\infty )\forall x \in \left( { - \dfrac{\pi }{2},\dfrac{\pi }{2}} \right) $
We know that,
$ g(x) = \sec x + \tan x = \dfrac{{1 + \sin x}}{{\cos x}} = \dfrac{{1 - ( - \sin x)}}{{\cos x}} $
Expanding it we get,
$ g(x) = \dfrac{{1 - (\cos \dfrac{\pi }{2} + x)}}{{\sin (\dfrac{\pi }{2} + x)}} $
Converting the above equation into $ \dfrac{{1 - \cos 2A}}{{\sin 2A}} $ form we get,
$ g(x) = \dfrac{{1 - (\cos 2(\dfrac{\pi }{4} + \dfrac{x}{2})}}{{\sin 2(\dfrac{\pi }{4} + \dfrac{x}{2})}} $
Putting the formula $ \dfrac{{1 - \cos 2A}}{{\sin 2A}} = \tan A $ we get,
$ g(x) = \tan (\dfrac{\pi }{4} + \dfrac{x}{2}) $
Hence, $ - \dfrac{\pi }{2} < x < \dfrac{\pi }{2} $
Dividing 2 we get,
$ - \dfrac{\pi }{4} < \dfrac{x}{2} < \dfrac{\pi }{4} $
Adding $ \dfrac{\pi }{4} $ we get,
$ \therefore $ $ o < \dfrac{x}{2} + \dfrac{\pi }{4} < \dfrac{\pi }{2} $
Taking tan,
$ \tan o < \tan \left( {\dfrac{x}{2} + \dfrac{\pi }{4}} \right) < \tan \dfrac{\pi }{2} $
Putting trigonometric values we get,
$ o < \tan \left( {\dfrac{x}{2} + \dfrac{\pi }{4}} \right) < \infty $
$ \therefore $ $ \left( {g(x)} \right) \in (0,\infty )\forall x \in \left( { - \dfrac{\pi }{2},\dfrac{\pi }{2}} \right) $
Hence, $ g(x) $ is onto function.
Thus $ {\{ \log \left( {g(x)} \right)\} ^3} $ is onto function.
Thus $ f(x) $ is onto function.
So, the correct answer is “Option A”, “Option B” and “Option C”.
Note: A function is called one to one if no two elements in the domain of that function correspond to the same element in the range of that function which means each x in the domain has exactly one image in the range. This is also called injective function.
The mapping of f is said to be onto if every element of the Y is the f-image of at least one element of x. It is also called a surjective function. A function f from a set X to set Y is surjective, if for every element y in the codomain Y of f, there is at least one element x in the domain X of f such that f(x)=y.
If a function is both one to one and onto, then it is called a bijective function.
Even functions and odd functions are functions which satisfy particular symmetry relations, with respect to taking additive inverse. If for a function $ f( - x) = - f(x) $ , then it is odd, if $ f( - x) = f(x) $ , then the function is even.
You might think it's done after proving it is an odd function, but you have to check each possibility or options one by one.
Recently Updated Pages
Master Class 12 Business Studies: Engaging Questions & Answers for Success

Master Class 12 English: Engaging Questions & Answers for Success

Master Class 12 Economics: Engaging Questions & Answers for Success

Master Class 12 Social Science: Engaging Questions & Answers for Success

Master Class 12 Maths: Engaging Questions & Answers for Success

Master Class 12 Chemistry: Engaging Questions & Answers for Success

Trending doubts
Why is insulin not administered orally to a diabetic class 12 biology CBSE

The total number of isomers considering both the structural class 12 chemistry CBSE

What is the Full Form of PVC, PET, HDPE, LDPE, PP and PS ?

How do you convert from joules to electron volts class 12 physics CBSE

Define Vant Hoff factor How is it related to the degree class 12 chemistry CBSE

The first microscope was invented by A Leeuwenhoek class 12 biology CBSE
