
What is the fraction of ${\text{Rs 1}}$ to $50{\text{ paise}}$.
Answer
581.1k+ views
Hint: Here we need to convert either ${\text{Rs 1}}$ to ${\text{paise}}$ or $50{\text{ paise}}$ to ${\text{Rupees}}$ and simply divide to get the desired result.
Complete step-by-step answer:
Here we are given to find out the fraction of ${\text{Rs 1}}$ to $50{\text{ paise}}$
First of all we need to understand what we mean by the fraction, so the fraction has two parts. The number on the top of the line is called the numerator and the number below it is known as the denominator and both must be in the same units to get the proper fraction. So here ${\text{Rs 1}}$is in the numerator and $50{\text{ paise}}$ is in the denominator. So our fraction will become$ = \dfrac{{\;1{\text{ Rs}}}}{{50{\text{ paise}}}}$ but we have to make both the numerator and denominator in the same unit which can be done by two cases.
Case 1
Here we simply convert ${\text{Rs}}$ to ${\text{paise}}$
We know that $1$ ${\text{Rs}}$$ = 100$${\text{paise}}$
So our fraction will become $ = \dfrac{{\;100{\text{ paise}}}}{{50{\text{ paise}}}}$
So we get the fraction as $ = \dfrac{{\;100{\text{ }}}}{{50{\text{ }}}} = 2$
Case 2
Here we are converting ${\text{paise to Rs}}$
And we know that $1{\text{ paise = }}\dfrac{1}{{100}}{\text{ Rupees}}$
So by multiplying $50$ both the sides we get that
${\text{50 paise = }}\dfrac{{50}}{{100}}{\text{ Rupees}}$
${\text{50 paise = 0}}{\text{.5 Rupees}}$
So our fraction is given as $\dfrac{{{\text{Rs 1}}}}{{50{\text{ paise}}}}$
This can be written as $\dfrac{{{\text{Rs 1}}}}{{{\text{Rs 0}}{\text{.5}}}} = \dfrac{{10}}{5} = 2$
Hence we get the same answer from both the cases which is $2$.
Note: As we know that every natural number or integer is a fraction but every fraction is an integer or a natural number for example: $ - 1,2,3$ are all integers but can be written in the form of $\dfrac{{ - 1}}{1},\dfrac{2}{1},\dfrac{3}{1}$
Which are all fractions but if we notice the fraction $\dfrac{1}{3},\dfrac{1}{6}$ are all fractions but are not integers. Hence we can say that the above thing said is true.
Complete step-by-step answer:
Here we are given to find out the fraction of ${\text{Rs 1}}$ to $50{\text{ paise}}$
First of all we need to understand what we mean by the fraction, so the fraction has two parts. The number on the top of the line is called the numerator and the number below it is known as the denominator and both must be in the same units to get the proper fraction. So here ${\text{Rs 1}}$is in the numerator and $50{\text{ paise}}$ is in the denominator. So our fraction will become$ = \dfrac{{\;1{\text{ Rs}}}}{{50{\text{ paise}}}}$ but we have to make both the numerator and denominator in the same unit which can be done by two cases.
Case 1
Here we simply convert ${\text{Rs}}$ to ${\text{paise}}$
We know that $1$ ${\text{Rs}}$$ = 100$${\text{paise}}$
So our fraction will become $ = \dfrac{{\;100{\text{ paise}}}}{{50{\text{ paise}}}}$
So we get the fraction as $ = \dfrac{{\;100{\text{ }}}}{{50{\text{ }}}} = 2$
Case 2
Here we are converting ${\text{paise to Rs}}$
And we know that $1{\text{ paise = }}\dfrac{1}{{100}}{\text{ Rupees}}$
So by multiplying $50$ both the sides we get that
${\text{50 paise = }}\dfrac{{50}}{{100}}{\text{ Rupees}}$
${\text{50 paise = 0}}{\text{.5 Rupees}}$
So our fraction is given as $\dfrac{{{\text{Rs 1}}}}{{50{\text{ paise}}}}$
This can be written as $\dfrac{{{\text{Rs 1}}}}{{{\text{Rs 0}}{\text{.5}}}} = \dfrac{{10}}{5} = 2$
Hence we get the same answer from both the cases which is $2$.
Note: As we know that every natural number or integer is a fraction but every fraction is an integer or a natural number for example: $ - 1,2,3$ are all integers but can be written in the form of $\dfrac{{ - 1}}{1},\dfrac{2}{1},\dfrac{3}{1}$
Which are all fractions but if we notice the fraction $\dfrac{1}{3},\dfrac{1}{6}$ are all fractions but are not integers. Hence we can say that the above thing said is true.
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