
Find the real values of $\theta $ for which $\left( \dfrac{1+i\cos \theta }{1-2i\cos \theta } \right)$ is purely real.
Answer
499.8k+ views
Hint: At first, we rationalise the denominator by $\dfrac{\left( 1+i\cos \theta \right)\left( 1+2i\cos \theta \right)}{\left( 1-2i\cos \theta \right)\left( 1+2i\cos \theta \right)}$ . Then, we simplify the expression to $\dfrac{1-2{{\cos }^{2}}\theta +3i\cos \theta }{1+4{{\cos }^{2}}\theta }$ . After that, we separate the real and imaginary parts as $\dfrac{1-2{{\cos }^{2}}\theta }{1+4{{\cos }^{2}}\theta }+\dfrac{3i\cos \theta }{1+4{{\cos }^{2}}\theta }$ . Then, we equate the imaginary part to zero and get $\cos \theta =0$ which gives the real values of $\theta $ .
Complete step by step solution:
The expression that we are given in this problem is,
$\left( \dfrac{1+i\cos \theta }{1-2i\cos \theta } \right)$
We need to simplify this expression in order to arrive at a conclusion. We can simplify it by rationalising it. We rationalise a fraction, say $\dfrac{x+y}{a-b}$ by multiplying $a+b$ in the numerator and the denominator as in $\dfrac{\left( x+y \right)\left( a+b \right)}{\left( a-b \right)\left( a+b \right)}$ . Then, doing so with the given fraction, we get,
$\Rightarrow \left( \dfrac{1+i\cos \theta }{1-2i\cos \theta } \right)=\dfrac{\left( 1+i\cos \theta \right)\left( 1+2i\cos \theta \right)}{\left( 1-2i\cos \theta \right)\left( 1+2i\cos \theta \right)}$
Simplifying the multiplication, we get,
$\Rightarrow \left( \dfrac{1+i\cos \theta }{1-2i\cos \theta } \right)=\dfrac{1+2i\cos \theta +i\cos \theta +\left( 2i\cos \theta \times i\cos \theta \right)}{1-{{\left( 2i\cos \theta \right)}^{2}}}$
We know that ${{i}^{2}}=-1$ . This gives,
$\Rightarrow \left( \dfrac{1+i\cos \theta }{1-2i\cos \theta } \right)=\dfrac{1+3i\cos \theta +2\left( -1 \right){{\cos }^{2}}\theta }{1-4\left( -1 \right){{\cos }^{2}}\theta }$
Further simplifying, we get,
$\Rightarrow \left( \dfrac{1+i\cos \theta }{1-2i\cos \theta } \right)=\dfrac{1-2{{\cos }^{2}}\theta +3i\cos \theta }{1+4{{\cos }^{2}}\theta }$
Separating the real and the imaginary parts, we get,
$\Rightarrow \left( \dfrac{1+i\cos \theta }{1-2i\cos \theta } \right)=\dfrac{1-2{{\cos }^{2}}\theta }{1+4{{\cos }^{2}}\theta }+\dfrac{3i\cos \theta }{1+4{{\cos }^{2}}\theta }$
Now, any expression with an $i$ multiplied to it is an imaginary expression. In the above operation, the term $3\cos \theta $ had $i$ multiplied with it, so we separated it. So, in order to make the expression purely real, the imaginary part should vanish, or in other words should be zero. This means that, if we equate the expression multiplied with $i$ to zero, we get the condition for the entire expression to be purely real. So,
$\begin{align}
& \Rightarrow \dfrac{3\cos \theta }{1+4{{\cos }^{2}}\theta }=0 \\
& \Rightarrow 3\cos \theta =0 \\
& \Rightarrow \cos \theta =0 \\
\end{align}$
Now, $\cos \theta $ is zero for $\dfrac{\pi }{2},\dfrac{3\pi }{2},\dfrac{5\pi }{2},...$ . So, for $\theta =\dfrac{n\pi }{2}$ where, $n=1,3,5,...$ $\cos \theta $ is zero.
Thus, we can conclude that the real values of $\theta $ for which $\left( \dfrac{1+i\cos \theta }{1-2i\cos \theta } \right)$ is purely real are $\theta =\dfrac{n\pi }{2}$ where, $n=1,3,5,...$.
Note: We should remember to write the general expression for $\theta $ and not just simply \[\dfrac{\pi }{2}\] . Also, we can solve this problem in another way. But this special method will be applicable only for this problem. If we can eliminate all the imaginary terms in the expression $\left( \dfrac{1+i\cos \theta }{1-2i\cos \theta } \right)$ , we get the answer. This can be done by equating $\cos \theta $ to zero, which is what we have done.
Complete step by step solution:
The expression that we are given in this problem is,
$\left( \dfrac{1+i\cos \theta }{1-2i\cos \theta } \right)$
We need to simplify this expression in order to arrive at a conclusion. We can simplify it by rationalising it. We rationalise a fraction, say $\dfrac{x+y}{a-b}$ by multiplying $a+b$ in the numerator and the denominator as in $\dfrac{\left( x+y \right)\left( a+b \right)}{\left( a-b \right)\left( a+b \right)}$ . Then, doing so with the given fraction, we get,
$\Rightarrow \left( \dfrac{1+i\cos \theta }{1-2i\cos \theta } \right)=\dfrac{\left( 1+i\cos \theta \right)\left( 1+2i\cos \theta \right)}{\left( 1-2i\cos \theta \right)\left( 1+2i\cos \theta \right)}$
Simplifying the multiplication, we get,
$\Rightarrow \left( \dfrac{1+i\cos \theta }{1-2i\cos \theta } \right)=\dfrac{1+2i\cos \theta +i\cos \theta +\left( 2i\cos \theta \times i\cos \theta \right)}{1-{{\left( 2i\cos \theta \right)}^{2}}}$
We know that ${{i}^{2}}=-1$ . This gives,
$\Rightarrow \left( \dfrac{1+i\cos \theta }{1-2i\cos \theta } \right)=\dfrac{1+3i\cos \theta +2\left( -1 \right){{\cos }^{2}}\theta }{1-4\left( -1 \right){{\cos }^{2}}\theta }$
Further simplifying, we get,
$\Rightarrow \left( \dfrac{1+i\cos \theta }{1-2i\cos \theta } \right)=\dfrac{1-2{{\cos }^{2}}\theta +3i\cos \theta }{1+4{{\cos }^{2}}\theta }$
Separating the real and the imaginary parts, we get,
$\Rightarrow \left( \dfrac{1+i\cos \theta }{1-2i\cos \theta } \right)=\dfrac{1-2{{\cos }^{2}}\theta }{1+4{{\cos }^{2}}\theta }+\dfrac{3i\cos \theta }{1+4{{\cos }^{2}}\theta }$
Now, any expression with an $i$ multiplied to it is an imaginary expression. In the above operation, the term $3\cos \theta $ had $i$ multiplied with it, so we separated it. So, in order to make the expression purely real, the imaginary part should vanish, or in other words should be zero. This means that, if we equate the expression multiplied with $i$ to zero, we get the condition for the entire expression to be purely real. So,
$\begin{align}
& \Rightarrow \dfrac{3\cos \theta }{1+4{{\cos }^{2}}\theta }=0 \\
& \Rightarrow 3\cos \theta =0 \\
& \Rightarrow \cos \theta =0 \\
\end{align}$
Now, $\cos \theta $ is zero for $\dfrac{\pi }{2},\dfrac{3\pi }{2},\dfrac{5\pi }{2},...$ . So, for $\theta =\dfrac{n\pi }{2}$ where, $n=1,3,5,...$ $\cos \theta $ is zero.
Thus, we can conclude that the real values of $\theta $ for which $\left( \dfrac{1+i\cos \theta }{1-2i\cos \theta } \right)$ is purely real are $\theta =\dfrac{n\pi }{2}$ where, $n=1,3,5,...$.
Note: We should remember to write the general expression for $\theta $ and not just simply \[\dfrac{\pi }{2}\] . Also, we can solve this problem in another way. But this special method will be applicable only for this problem. If we can eliminate all the imaginary terms in the expression $\left( \dfrac{1+i\cos \theta }{1-2i\cos \theta } \right)$ , we get the answer. This can be done by equating $\cos \theta $ to zero, which is what we have done.
Recently Updated Pages
Why are manures considered better than fertilizers class 11 biology CBSE

Find the coordinates of the midpoint of the line segment class 11 maths CBSE

Distinguish between static friction limiting friction class 11 physics CBSE

The Chairman of the constituent Assembly was A Jawaharlal class 11 social science CBSE

The first National Commission on Labour NCL submitted class 11 social science CBSE

Number of all subshell of n + l 7 is A 4 B 5 C 6 D class 11 chemistry CBSE

Trending doubts
What is meant by exothermic and endothermic reactions class 11 chemistry CBSE

10 examples of friction in our daily life

One Metric ton is equal to kg A 10000 B 1000 C 100 class 11 physics CBSE

1 Quintal is equal to a 110 kg b 10 kg c 100kg d 1000 class 11 physics CBSE

Difference Between Prokaryotic Cells and Eukaryotic Cells

What are Quantum numbers Explain the quantum number class 11 chemistry CBSE

