
Choose the sentence that is written correctly:
A. Carol has a piano lesson tomorrow.
B. Carol have a piano lesson tomorrow.
C. Carol haves a piano lesson tomorrow.
Answer
501.3k+ views
Hint: In non-functional linguistics, a sentence is a textual unit composed of one or more grammatically related words. A sentence is a unit of written text denoted by graphological features such as upper case letters and markings such as intervals, question marks, and exclamation marks in functional linguistics.
Complete answer:
The verbs “have” and “has” are two separate forms of the verb to have. In the fact that they are derived from the same expression, but they are used in somewhat different ways. The meaning of the verb 'to have' is “to possess, own, hold for use, or contain”. In the present tense, have and has denoted possession. Remember that “have” is used with pronouns such as “I, you, we and they” while “has” is used with “he, she and it”
Consider the following sentence: "They have two cats." Since the subject (they) is a third-person plural pronoun, “have” is the right option. This example demonstrates how “has” is used for a third-person singular pronoun (he): “He has an exam tomorrow,” he says.
Now, let us analyse the given options:
Option A. Carol has a piano lesson tomorrow - Carol is a singular noun and “has” is used as the verb. Therefore this option is correct.
Option B. Carol have a piano lesson tomorrow - “Have” is usually used with the pronouns “I, we” for the first person and “you” for the second person. Therefore, this option is incorrect
Option C. Carol haves a piano lesson tomorrow - The word “haves” is used for the wealthy or privileged people. Therefore, this option is incorrect.
Therefore, by analysing the above discussion we can say that option (A) “Carol has a piano lesson tomorrow” is correct.
Note: A sentence must be grammatically right if the subject and verb are singular or plural.
To put it another way, the subject and verb must agree on the expression. If the subject is plural, the verb should be plural as well (and vice versa).
Complete answer:
The verbs “have” and “has” are two separate forms of the verb to have. In the fact that they are derived from the same expression, but they are used in somewhat different ways. The meaning of the verb 'to have' is “to possess, own, hold for use, or contain”. In the present tense, have and has denoted possession. Remember that “have” is used with pronouns such as “I, you, we and they” while “has” is used with “he, she and it”
Consider the following sentence: "They have two cats." Since the subject (they) is a third-person plural pronoun, “have” is the right option. This example demonstrates how “has” is used for a third-person singular pronoun (he): “He has an exam tomorrow,” he says.
Now, let us analyse the given options:
Option A. Carol has a piano lesson tomorrow - Carol is a singular noun and “has” is used as the verb. Therefore this option is correct.
Option B. Carol have a piano lesson tomorrow - “Have” is usually used with the pronouns “I, we” for the first person and “you” for the second person. Therefore, this option is incorrect
Option C. Carol haves a piano lesson tomorrow - The word “haves” is used for the wealthy or privileged people. Therefore, this option is incorrect.
Therefore, by analysing the above discussion we can say that option (A) “Carol has a piano lesson tomorrow” is correct.
Note: A sentence must be grammatically right if the subject and verb are singular or plural.
To put it another way, the subject and verb must agree on the expression. If the subject is plural, the verb should be plural as well (and vice versa).
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