Question

Any non-zero whole number divided by itself gives the quotient 1.
(A) True
(B) False

Answer 1

Hint: In order to this question, to know whether the given statement is correct or not, we will explain the given statement and then we will take a non-zero whole number and then divide it by itself only to prove it gives the quotient 1.

Complete step-by-step solution:
Yes, the given statement is true.
As if we divide any non-zero whole number divided by itself then it will give quotient 1.
For eg.. If we divide 2 by 2 itself, then it will give quotient 1.
As per the standard rule, if a whole number is divided by another whole number, which is greater than the first one, the quotient is not equal to zero.
And if we divide 0 by 0 itself, then this is undefined. To do something in this case, we have to use limits.
A nonzero whole number is a quantity which does not equal zero and number without fractions. Any number that is not zero is referred to as a nonzero number. Positive and negative numbers, fractions, and irrational numbers are also included. Numbers are classified into different categories based on their characteristics. Both positive counting numbers from one to infinity are included in the natural numbers.
Natural numbers from 1 onwards are used in whole numbers. Positive integers and 0 are used in whole numbers. There is no such thing as the 'highest' whole amount. With the exception of 0, every whole number has an immediate predecessor or a preceding number. A decimal number or a fraction is a number that lies between two whole numbers but is not one of them.
Hence, the correct option is (A) True.

Note: We can raise a question here that can nonzero whole numbers be closed under Division, so For instance, we can divide two nonzero whole numbers, say 5 and 2, to get $2.5$ , which is not a whole number. So we've worked our way out of the set of whole numbers by dividing them. The set of nonzero whole numbers is not closed under division since this is possible.