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If a=z1z+1 is purely imaginary number (z is not equal to1), then mod z is ?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Answer
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Hint: A complex number is of the form a +ib where a and b are real numbers and i is an imaginary number. Here, we will take z=x+iy and substitute the value of z. We will also use the formula (ab)(a+b)=a2b2 and (ab)2=a2+b22ab. We know that i2=1. For the given complex number is in the form z=x+iy, then the conjugate of that number will be z=xiy. Here, if you take the conjugate number as a complex number and then solve it, you will still get the correct answer.

Complete step by step answer:
Let, z=x+iy and z1.
Give that, a=z1z+1
Substituting the value of z, we get,
a=x+iy1x+iy+1
Rearrange the above expression, we get,
a=x1+iyx+1+iy
Multiply to both the numerator and denominator withx+1iy, we get,
a=x1+iyx+1+iy×x+1iyx+1iya=(x1+iy)(x+1iy)(x+1+iy)(x+1iy)
a=(x(1iy))(x+(1iy))((x+1)+iy)((x+1)iy)
Applying this formula(ab)(a+b)=a2b2, we get,
a=x2(1iy)2(x+1)2(iy)2
Applying this formula(ab)2=a2+b22ab, we get,
Also, (iy)2=i2y2=(1)y2=y2 (i2=1)
a=x2(12+(iy)22(iy))(x+1)2(iy)2
a=x2(1y22yi)(x+1)2(y2)
a=x21+y2+2yi(x+1)2+y2
a=x2+y21(x+1)2+y2+2y(x+1)2+y2i

Since it is given that z1z+1 is purely imaginary, it means that the real part is zero.
x2+y21(x+1)2+y2=0
x2+y21=0x2+y2=1
We know that, |z|=|x+iy|=x2+y2
x2+y2=1
|z|=±1
Since, it is given that, z1
|z|=1

Note: Another method: Since it is given thatz1z+1is purely imaginary,
z1z+1+(z1z+1)=0
z1z+1+z1z+1=0
(z1)(z+1)+(z1)(z+1)(z+1)(z+1)=0
(z1)(z+1)+(z1)(z+1)=0
zz+zz1+zz+zz1=02zz2=0
zz1=0
|z|2=1
|z|=±1
Since, it is given that, z1
|z|=1
Hence, if z1z+1 is purely imaginary number andz1 then |z|=1.