Question

20p is …… part of a rupee.

Answer 1

Hint: First, we shall analyze the given information so that we are able to solve the problem. Here let us learn some basic facts. We all know that the rupees are made up of paise and hence each rupee consists of \[100\] paise. We know that \[100paise = 1rupee\] . Hence \[1paise = \dfrac{1}{{100}}rupee\] . The above conversion can also be expressed as $1p$ is ${\left( {\dfrac{1}{{100}}} \right)^{th}}$part of the rupee.
We are asked to calculate the part of a rupee for the given $20p$

Complete step by step answer:
In this question, we are given $20p$
We are asked to calculate the part of a rupee for the given $20p$
Let us assume that we have $x$ as the part of a rupee.
Since \[100paise = 1rupee\] our assumption is changed.
That is, we have $x$ as the part of $100p$
Hence, according to the question
$20p = x{\text{ }}part{\text{ }}of100p$
$ \Rightarrow x = \dfrac{{20}}{{100}}$
$ \Rightarrow x = \dfrac{1}{5}$
Hence, $20p$ is ${\left( {\dfrac{1}{5}} \right)^{th}}$part of a rupee.

Additional information:
The Indian rupee is the official currency of India and the symbol of the rupee is₹ and it can be coded as INR. Also, the rupee is subdivided into 100 paise (in the singular, it is said to be paisa). We all know that the rupees are made up of paise and hence each rupee consists of \[100\] paise. The Indian paisa (in the plural, it is said to be paise) is a \[\dfrac{1}{{100}}\] (one-hundredth) subdivision of the Indian rupee.

Note: We all know that the rupees are made up of paise and hence each rupee consists of paise. We know that\[100paise = 1rupee\] . Hence \[1paise = \dfrac{1}{{100}}rupee\] . The above conversion can also be expressed as $1p$ is ${\left( {\dfrac{1}{{100}}} \right)^{th}}$part of the rupee.